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# PMP Mock Exams

# Based on PMBOK 4th Edition

Here are 200 objective type sample questions and their answers are given just below to them. This exam is just to give you an idea of type of questions which may be asked in PMP Certification Exams. Even we have taken full care to give correct answers for all the questions but it is recommended to verify these answers.

In examination you will get each question one by one on computer screen

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(51) All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT:

1. Memos
2. Verbal circulation of a rumor
3. Videos
4. Body language
5. Inputting data into a spreadsheet

Answer:E

(52) Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project:

1. Manager in a weak matrix
2. Manager in a projectized environment
3. Coordinator
4. Expeditor

Answer:D

(53) What are the four parts of the communications model?

1. Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending
2. Sender, Message, Medium, Receiver
3. Communicator, Message, Receiver, Decoder
4. Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, Comprehending

Answer:B

(54) In negotiating with functional department managers, project managers often find themselves using what two-party conflict management approach?

1. Win-Lose
2. Win-Win
3. Lose-Lose
4. None of the above

Answer:C

(55) A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called:

1. Autocratic
2. Consultation in a group
3. Consensus
4. One-to-one consultation

Answer:C

(56) A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal authority and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately responsible for the project is called:

1. Functional
2. Weak matrix
3. Project coordinator
4. Project expediter

Answer:D

(57) Create WBS process belongs to:

1. Initiation Process Group
2. Planning Process Group
3. Executing Process Group
4. Monitoring & Controlling Process Group

Answer: B

(58) In which of the following organizations is the project manager role likely to be part-time?

1. Weak matrix
2. Functional
3. Balanced matrix
4. a and b
5. All of the above

Answer:C

(59) Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except:

1. Risk Quantification
2. Risk Identification
3. Risk Analysis
4. Risk Response Development
5. Risk Response Control

Answer:E

(60) Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false?

1. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.
2. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.
3. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.
4. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.

Answer:C

(61) Which of the following is true about pure risk?

1. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy.
2. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.
3. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses.
4. a and c
5. a and b

Answer:D

(62) A contingency plan is:

1. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur.
2. A workaround
3. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.
4. a and c
5. a and b

Answer:A

(63) Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories?

1. Mitigation
2. Acceptance
3. Avoidance
4. Analysis

Answer:A

(64) Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?

1. Unknown unknowns
2. Known unknowns
3. business risks
4. pure risks

Answer:A

(65) Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Process?

1. Whether to procure
2. How to procure and how much to procure
3. What and when to procure
4. b and c
5. all of the above

Answer:E

(66) From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is true?

1. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts
2. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor.
3. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process
4. none of the above

Answer:A

(67) Which of the following is true about procurement documents?

1. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.
2. Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.
3. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers.
4. b and c
5. all of the above

Answer:E

(68) Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection?

1. Weighting system
2. Screening system
3. Selecting system
4. none of the above
5. all of the above

Answer:A

(69) Which of the following are examples of indirect costs?

1. Salaries of corporate executives
2. Salaries of full-time project staff
3. Overhead costs
4. a and b
5. a and c

Answer:E

(70) Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?

1. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
2. Cost plus-incentive-fee contract
3. Fixed-price-incentive contract
4. Firm-fixed-price contract

Answer:D

(71) In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limited?

1. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract
2. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
3. Fixed-price-plus-incentive
4. b and c
5. none of the above

Answer:D

(72) A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC. contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the seller?

1. $143,000
2. $142,000
3. $140,000
4. $132,000

Answer:A

(73) A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI. contract has a target cost of $130,000, a target profit of $15,000, a target price of $145,000, a ceiling price of $160,000, and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project was $150,000. How much profit does the seller make?

1. $10,000
2. $15,000
3. $0
4. $5,000

Answer:A

(74) Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?

1. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.
2. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.
3. The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.
4. all the above
5. a and c

Answer:E

(75) Which type of bilateral contract is used for high dollar, standard items?

1. Purchase order
2. Request for proposal (RFP.
3. Invitation for bid (IFB.
4. Request for quotation (RFQ.
5. all of them are appropriate

Answer:C

(76) In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identified?

1. Probing
2. Closure
3. Agreement
4. Scratch bargaining

Answer:D

(77) Which of the following is NOT a method of government procurement?

1. Assistance
2. Sealed Bidding
3. Competitive proposals
4. Acquisition
5. Small purchases
6. No answer provided

Answer:D

(78) The "rule of seven" as applied to process control charts means that :

1. If there are seven points on one side of mean, then an assignable cause must be found.
2. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same.
3. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees.
4. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits.

Answer:A

(79) There is project with CPI of 0.81 and TCPI=1.00001 this project is:

1. Overbudget and cannot recover
2. Underbudget
3. Overbudget and early in its evolution
4. No interference cam be made

Answer:D

(80) A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, is called:

1. Project life cycle
2. Product life cycle
3. Project life event
4. All of the above

Answer: A

(81) What does RDU stand for?

1. Really Dumb User
2. Ready for Download Use
3. Remaining Duration unassisted
4. Remaining Duration

Answer: D

(82) Who is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk response development, risk Monitor and Control?

1. Project Communications Management
2. Project human resource Management
3. Project Procurement Management
4. Project Risk Management

Answer: D

(83) Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value =

1. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6
2. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6
3. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6
4. (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6

Answer: B

(84) Two Point Delphi Estimate, The Best and Worst Case effort calculation:

1. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2
2. Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst
3. Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best
4. none of the above

Answer: A

(85) What does TQM stand for?

1. Time Quality Managed
2. Target Quality Management
3. Total Quality Management
4. Time Quote Management

ANSWER: C

(86) Examples of Projects include:

1. Implementing a new business procedure or process
2. Constructing a building or facility
3. Designing a new transportation vehicle
4. All of the Above

ANSWER: D

(87) Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization?

1. True
2. False
3. Both True and False
4. Neither true nor false

ANSWER: A

(88) 7. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end.

1. Overall
2. Project Chart
3. Temporary
4. Duration

ANSWER: C

(89) The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as:

1. Calendar Unit
2. Scope unit
3. Time Measurement
4. All of the Above

ANSWER: A

(90) Who should be involved in the project planning phase?

1. The Project Manager.
2. The customer.
3. The Sub-contractors/vendors.
4. The project team members.
5. All of the above.

Answer: E

(91) The successful project managers spend most of their time:

1. Planning with their personnel.
2. Planning with top management.
3. Talking with personnel.
4. Studying project results.

Answer: C

(92) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide:

1. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit.
2. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses.
3. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance.
4. None of the above.

Answer: A

(93) Project success depends on a no. of interrelated factors, including time, cost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on:

1. Customer acceptance.
2. Customer satisfaction.
3. Customer compromise in defining its needs.
4. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.

Answer: B

(94) Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection:

1. Acceptance sampling.
2. 100% inspection.
3. Variable lot inspection.
4. A and C.

Answer: A

(95) Constructive Team Role includes :

1. Investigates, clarifier and closer.
2. Compromise, blocker and closer.
3. Initiate, encourage and gate keeper.
4. Investigates, recognize and summary.

Answer: C

(96) Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality.

1. Control.
2. Assurances.
3. Planning.
4. Verification.

Answer: A

(97) In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates:

1. Problem-solving through different approaches.
2. Learning and communication.
3. Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures.
4. Negotiations.

Answer: B

(98) A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is:

1. Conflict of interest.
2. Differentiation in organization
3. Resolved prior conflicts.
4. Both A and B.
5. All of the above.

Answer: D

(99) The contemporary view of conflict is that:

1. Conflict is bad.
2. Conflict is caused by trouble makers.
3. Conflict should be avoided.
4. Conflict is often beneficial.
5. A, B and C.

Answer: D

(100) In general a project charter covers:

1. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply.
2. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.
3. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational apply.
4. Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.

Answer: D

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